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Multiple Choice Questions

Q.1- Which statement best describes the ‘semi conservative replication’ of DNA?

A) In each replication cycle, only one of the two DNA strands is replicated

B) In each replication cycle one of the parental strands is conserved

C) In each replication cycle, the daughter cells acquire either the parental strands or new stands

D) Only half of the DNA is replicated in each replication cycle

E) The genetic information is partly conserved in each of the replication cycle.

Q.2- Which of the following enzymes is not involved in DNA replication?

A) Helicase

B) Primase

C) Topo isomerase

D) DNA Polymerase

E) Reverse transcriptase

Q.3- The mobile complex between helicase and primase is called-

A) Prepriming complex

B) Origin replication element

C) DNA unwinding element

D) Primosome

E) Nucleosome

Q.4- The template is read in replication in the-

A) 3’-5’ direction

B) 5’-3’ direction

C) From both the directions

D) Any of these directions

E) None of these directions.

Q.5- The main enzyme to polymerize leading strand of eukaryotic DNA is-

A) DNA polymerase α

B) DNA polymerase β

C) DNA polymerase γ

D) DNA polymerase δ

E) DNA polymerase ∑

Q.6- The prokaryotic DNA chain elongation is carried out by

A) DNA polymerase I

B) DNA polymerase II

C) DNA polymerase III

D) DNA Ligase

E) Topoisomerase II

Q.7- DNA chain growth can be blocked by all of the following agents except-

A) Cytosine arabinoside

B) Zidovudine

C) Acyclovir

D) Dideoxyinosine

E) Chloramphenicol

Q.8- In a newly synthesized prokaryotic DNA strand, the primers are removed by-

A) DNA polymerase I

B) DNA polymerase II

C) DNA polymerase III

D) DNA Ligase

E) Topoisomerase II

Q.9- The 5’-3’ exonuclease activity involves all except-

A) Removal of one nucleotide at a time in the properly base paired DNA

B) Both ribonucleotides as well as deoxy ribonucleotides can be removed

C) Groups of altered nucleotides can also be removed

D) Activity is possessed by both DNA pol. I and III

E) DNA repair can also be undertaken by this activity

Q.10- Which of the following eukaryotic DNA polymerases has intrinsic primase activity?

A) DNA polymerase α

B) DNA polymerase β

C) DNA polymerase γ

D) DNA polymerase δ

E) DNA polymerase ∑

Q.11- In the genetic disease, Xeroderma pigmentosum, the cells fail to repair the damaged DNA, due to the defect in the-

A) Direct repair

B) Base excision repair

C) Nucleotide excision repair

D) Mismatch repair

E) Double strand break repair

Q.12- In a segment of DNA exposed to chemicals Cytosine has been deaminated to Uracil, Which of the following mechanisms will remove Uracil and incorporate the correct base?

A) Direct repair

B) Base excision repair

C) Nucleotide excision repair

D) Mismatch repair

E) Double strand break repair

Q.13- The promoter region in prokaryotic transcription is recognized by-

A) DNA binding proteins

B) σ Factor of RNA polymerase

C) Single strand binding protein

D) Rho factor

E) β subunit of RNA polymerase

Q.14- Choose the incorrect statement about RNA polymerase-

A) Can not initiate chain synthesis

B) Has no endonuclease activity

C) Has no proof reading activity

D) Utilizes Ribonucleotides only for polymerization

E) Can bind to only double stranded DNA

Q.15- Actinomycin D, is an inhibitor of transcription, which acts as by inhibiting-

A) β- subunit of prokaryotic RNA polymerase

B) Movement of RNA polymerase along the DNA template

C) Sigma subunit of RNA polymerase

D) All of the above

E) None of the above.

Q.16Which of the following processes is not involved in the post transcriptional processing of t-RNA?

A) Attachment of poly A tail

B) Trimming

C) Splicing

D) Attachment of CCA arm

E) Base modification

Q.17- Systemic lupus Erythematosus is an auto immune disorder that results due to the formation of antibodies against snRNPs. What is the function of snRNPs?

A) Attachment of poly A tail

B) Splicing

C) 5’ capping in m RNA

D) Base modification

E) All of the above.

Q.18- Transcription of a gene in human cells:

A) Always begins at an AUG codon

B) Does not require local unwinding of DNA

C) Always reads the template in the 3’-5’ direction

D) Requires a primer

E) Involves the whole of the DNA

Q.19- The chemical structure of 5’ cap of eukaryotic m RNA cap is-

A) 5- methyl Adenosine triphosphate

B) 7- Hydroxy Guanosine triphosphate

C) 5- methyl guanosine triphosphate

D) 7- methyl guanosine triphosphate

E) 5,7 Dimethyl guanosine triphosphate

Q.20- Choose the incorrect statement about m RNA-

A) Poly (A) tail is added to the 3′ end.

B) Cap is added to the 5’ end.

C) Methylation takes place at 2′-hydroxy and the N6 of adenylyl residues.

D) Histone mRNAs lack 5’ cap.

E) Introns are removed and exons are spliced together.


Key to Answers

1)- B, 2)- E, 3)- D, 4)- A, 5)- D, 6)-C, 7)- E, 8)-A, 9)- D, 10)- A, 11)- C, 12)- B, 13)- B, 14)- A, 15)-B, 16)- A, 17)-B, 18)- C, 19)- D, 20)- D.






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Q.1-The monomeric deoxyribonucleotide units of DNA include all except-

A) Deoxyadenylate,

B) Deoxyguanylate

C) Deoxycytidylate,

D) Deoxyuridylate

E) Thymidylate                                                                                                                       

Q.2- The two strands of this double-stranded helix are held in register by-

A) Hydrogen bonds between the purine and pyrimidine bases of the respective linear molecules

B) Van der Waals forces between the stacked adjacent base pairs

C) Hydrophobic interactions between the stacked adjacent base pairs

D) All of the above

E) None of the above.                                                                                                

Q.3- Chargaff’s rule states that in a double stranded DNA molecule-

A) Concentration of Deoxyadenosine (A) nucleotides equals that of Thymidine (T) nucleotides

B) Concentration of Deoxyadenosine (A) nucleotides equals that of Deoxy guanosine (G) nucleotides

C) Concentration of Deoxy cytidine (C) nucleotides equals that of Thymidine (T) nucleotides

D) Concentration of Deoxy uridine (U) nucleotides equals that of Deoxy guanosine (G) nucleotides.

E) All of the above.                                                                                        

Q.4- Choose the incorrect statement out of the following:

A) Double-stranded DNA exists in at least six forms (A–E and Z)

B) The B form is usually found under physiologic conditions

C) Single turn of B-DNA about the axis of the molecule contains six base pairs

D) The distance spanned by one turn of B-DNA is 3.4 nm

E) The width (helical diameter) of the double helix in B-DNA is 2 nm.                                

Q.5- When the DNA molecule is twisted in the direction opposite from the clockwise turns of the right-handed double helix found in B-DNA, such DNA is said to have acquired-

A) Z form

B) A form

C) Positive supercoils

D) Negative supercoils

E) No change.                                                                                                 

Q.6- Choose the correct statement out of the following:

A) The common form of DNA is said to be Left-handed

B) The coding strand is copied during RNA synthesis

C) The two strands of the double-helical DNA molecule run parallel to each other

D) Template strand matches the sequence of the RNA transcript

E) The G–C bonds are much more resistant to denaturation than A–T-rich regions.          

Q.7- Ribonucleic acid (RNA) is a polymer of purine and pyrimidine ribonucleotides linked together by-

A) Hydrogen bonds

B) Hydrophobic interactions

C) Vander wal’s forces

D) 3’-5’ Phosphodiester linkages

E) 5’-3’ Phosphodiester linkages                                                                                

Q.8- Which of the following types of RNA participate in RNA processing?

A) t-RNA

B) r-RNA

C) Small nuclear RNA (snRNA)

D) Small Interfering RNAs (siRNAs)

E) Heterogeneous nuclear RNA (hnRNA)                                                                              

Q.9- The anticodon region is an important structural component of-

A) m-RNA


C) r- RNA

D) t-RNA

E) Micro RNAs                                                                                                

Q.10- The Small Nuclear RNAs (snRNAs) are rich in-

A) Uracil

B) Cytosine

C) Thymine

D) Adenine

E) Guanine                                                                                         

Q.11- The Z DNA helix:

A) Has fewer base pairs per turn than the B DNA

B) Has alternating GC sequences

C) Tends to be found at the 3’ end of genes

D) Is inhibited by methylation of the bases

E) Is a permanent conformation of DNA                                                                   

Q.12- An endonuclease is an enzyme that hydrolyzes:

A) A nucleotide from only the 3’ end of an oligonucleotide

B) A nucleotide from either terminal of an oligonucleotide

C) A phosphodiester bond located in the interior of a polynucleotide

D) A bond only in the specific sequence of nucleotides

E) A nucleotide from only the 5’end of an oligonucleotide                          

Q.13- Which of the following has the highest percentage of modified bases ?

A) hn RNA

B) t-RNA

C) sn RNA

D) m-RNA

E)r- RNA                                                                                                         

Q.14- Which of the following RNAs contains both a 7-Methyl guanosine triphosphate cap and polyadenylate segment?

A) hn RNA

B) t-RNA

C) sn RNA

D) m-RNA

E) r- RNA                                                                                             

Q.15- Choose the incorrect statement  about an RNA:

A) Has a single stranded structure

B) Does not obey Chargaff’s rule

C) Does not exhibit Watson and crick’s base pairing

D) Instead of Uracil contains the ribonucleotides of thymine

E) The sugar moiety is ribose                                                            

Q.16- Choose the incorrect statement about histones

A) H1 histones are tightly bound to chromatin

B) H2A, H2B, H3, and H4 form the core of a nucleosome

C) H3 and H4 form a tetramer

D) H2A and H2B form dimers

E) Histone oligomers associate to form the histone octamer                                  

Q.17- When the B DNA is slightly dehydrated in the laboratory it takes on-

A) Negative supercoils

B) Positive supercoils

C) Z conformation

D) A conformation

E) Remains unchanged in conformation                                                                   

Q.18- Which of the following nucleic acids has a left-handed helix?




D) m-RNA

E) t-RNA                                                                                                         

Q.19- Which of the following statements is incorrect about t RNA species?

A) They have the smallest size of the three major species

B) All t RNAs have between 10-20 nucleotides

C) There is at least one specific t RNA molecule for each of the 20 amino acids

D) They make up 15% of the t RNA in the cell.

E) t RNA molecules contain unusual bases.                                                   

Q.20- Which of the following processes would not lead to disruption of the nucleosomal structure?

A) Acetylation

B) Methylation

C) Phosphorylation

D) Carboxylation

E) Hydroxylation                                                                                


Key to answers

1)-D, 2)- D, 3)- A, 4)- C,5)- D, 6)- E, 7)- D, 8)- C, 9)- D, 10)- A, 11)- B, 12)- C, 13)- B, 14)- D, 15)- D, 16)- A, 17)- D, 18)- A, 19)- B, 20)- B.

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 Q.1-Which of the followings does NOT need a primer in order to function?

a)  DNA Pol I

b)  DNA Pol II

c)  DNA Pol III

d) RNA polymerase

Q.2-How many hydrogen bonds form between U and A in a Watson-Crick base pair interactions?

a) 0

b) 1

c) 2

d)  3

Q.3-Which of the followings is required for end to end  joining of DNA

a) DNA Pol I

b) DNA ligase

c) DNA Pol III

d) RNA polymerase

Q.4- The only methylated base in mammals is?

a)7-methyl guanine

b) Thymine

c)  Methyl adenine

d) 5-methyl cytosine

Q.5- The only nucleoside with base to sugar C-C linkage is-

a) Thymidine

b) Pseudouridine

c) Cytidine

d) Adenosine

Q.6- Repressor molecules bind to the:

a) Promoter


c) Operator

d) Hormone response element

Q.7- Which of the following enzyme(s) can remove or insert supercoil twists into circular DNA?

a) Topoisomerases

b) DNA Pol II

c) Spliceosomes

d) Helicase


a) Bind to RNA pol II

b) Package prokaryotic DNA

c) Are only present in prokaryotes

d) Are composed on an octamer of histones and ~150 bp of DNA

Q.9- Which of the following m RNA s lack poly A tail?

a) Ferritin

b) Interferon

c) Insulin

d) None of the above.

Q.10-The RNA primer is removed from the Okazaki fragment by:

a) DNA Pol I

b) DNA Pol II

c) DNA Pol III

d) RNA polymerase

Q.11-Histones have an abundance of which of the following amino acids?

a) Lysine and arginine

b) Alanine and glutamine

c) Glycine and Glutamine

d) Arginine and Glutamine          

Q.12-Which of the following is not a cloning vector?

a) Helicase

b) PBR322

c) SV40

d)  E.coli genomic DNA

Q.13-Which of the following is false about the E. coli Lac operon?

a) It is polycistronic

b) It is an example of negative control

c) The presence of lactose acts as an inducer

d) The repressor binds to the promoter

Q.14-The part of the bacterial RNA polymerase responsible for recognizing the promoter is the:

a) Alpha subunit

b) Rho protein


d) sigma subunit

Q.15- Enhancer regions in eukaryotic DNA are –

a) DNA Pol I binding sites

b) Inhibit the binding of repressor

c) Enhance the frequency of transcription

d) Specific for given set of genes

 Q.16- In contrast to DNA polymerase, RNA polymerase

a) Fills in the gap between Okazaki fragments

b) Works only in 5`to 3` direction

c) Edits as it synthesizes

d) Synthesizes RNA primer to initiate DNA synthesis.     

Q.17- DNA is replicated:

a) Conservatively

b) Distributively

c) Semi-conservatively

d) Dispersively

Q.18- Telomerase does which of the following-

a) Joins Okazaki fragments on the lagging strand

b) Catalyzes DNA replication at the ends of chromosome

c) Enhances transcription

d) Requires dCTP

Q.19-Eukaryotic RNA polymerase I is specialized to transcribe which of the following?

a)  mRNA

b) tRNA

c) Ribosomal RNA

d) Mitochondrial RNA

Q.20-The melting temperature of DNA is the temperature where:

a) DNA anneals to RNA

b) DNA denatures into single strands

c) DNA is degraded

d) RNA binds to the ribosome

Q.21- Actinomycin D is an inhibitor of-                                                                 

a) Replication                                                                                    

b) Transcription

c) Translation                                                                                    

d) all of the above.

Q.22- In protein synthesis which out of the following is not a termination codon?

a) UAG                                               

b) UGA

c) UUU                                                 

d) UAA                

Q.23- A promoter site on DNA –

a) is present upstream to the start site                 

b) is present on the coding strand           

c) Initiates transcription

d) All of the above          

Q.24- All are true for DNA polymerase except one-

a) Has exonuclease activity

b) Works only in 5`to 3` direction

c) Edits as it synthesizes

d) Synthesizes RNA primer to initiate DNA synthesis.     

Q.25- Which of the following result is provided by Western Blot Analysis

a) Detects DNA molecules                          

b) Detects Protein molecules                    

c) Detects RNA molecules

d) Determines chromosomal structure

Q.26- Which of the following is an anticancer drug?

a) 5- methyl thymidine                 

b) Ribose phosphate                                     

c) Ara C

d) PRPP (5- phosphoribosylpyrophosphate)

Q.27- A 10-year-old Caucasian girl is brought in by her parents for evaluation of a skin disorder. The child has many freckles on her face, arms, and legs. The parents were told by previous physicians that she suffers from Xeroderma pigmentosum and that they should limit her exposure to sun light. What is the most likely etiology of this disorder?

a) Deficient DNA replication

b)  Impaired DNA repair by nucleotide excision

c) Defective RNA transcription from TATA-less promoter

d)  Impaired DNA repair by photo reactivation                                   

Q.28- Which of the following events would occur at the E. coli lac operon when the glucose concentration of the growth medium is low and the lactose concentration is high?

a)  The lac repressor protein will bind to the operator sequence.

b) Ribosomes will stall during translation of the first 13 amino acids.

c) The transcribed RNA will form a cAMP-dependent stem-loop structure to terminate transcription.

d) The catabolite gene activator protein (CAP), bound with cAMP, will stimulate binding of RNA polymerase to the promoter.                                                                          

Q.29- BRCA-1 is associated with which cancer?

a) Breast                                                                             

b) Nerve             

c) Thyroid                                                           

d) Leukemia                      

Q.30- The p53 protein normally promotes

a) DNA replication                                                                          

b) Cell division

c) Tumor formation                                                                        

d) Apoptosis                     

Q.31- What is added to the 3′-end of many eukaryotic mRNAs after transcription?

a) Introns

b) Cap of modified G nucleotide

c) Poly A tail

d) Trinucleotide CCA      

Q.32-The binding of the prokaryotic DNA dependent RNA polymerase to promoter site is inhibited by-

a) Streptomycin                                               

b) Puromycin    

c) Rifampicin                                     

d) Tetracycline                 

 Q.33-The mutagenicity of a compound can be detected by-

a) ELISA                                                                               

b) Ame’s test                                                                    

c) Western blotting

d) Any of the above.     

Q.34- A 20 year old man was diagnosed with abnormal form of β – globin (Hemoglobin Constant Spring) which is longer than the normal protein, which of the following point mutation is consistent with the abnormality?

a) UAA——->CAA                                                       

b) CGA——>UGA                                                        

c) UAA——->UAG

d) GAC——-> UAC

Q.35- Which of the following sugar is found in RNA?

a) 2- deoxy Ribose                                          

b) 3-deoxy Ribose                                          

c) D- Ribose

d) D- Xylulose

Q.36-All are nucleosides except-

a) Cytosine                                                        

b) Guanosine                                                    

c) Inosine

d) Adenosine    

Q.37- What is added to the 3′-end of many eukaryotic tRNAs after transcription?


b) Cap of modified G nucleotide

c) Poly A tail

d) Trinucleotide CCA

Q.38-Restriction endonucleases are enzymes –

a) Used for joining DNA to cloning vector             

b) That cleave randomly                                              

c) That digest DNA from ends

d) Cleave DNA at specific sites

Q.39- An 8 –year-old boy is treated with Ciprofloxacin for some respiratory infection. Which of the following enzyme activity is most directly affected by this drug?

a) DNA polymerase                                                        

b) Topo Isomerase                                                         

c) Reverse transcriptase

d) RNA polymerase        

Q.40-Which one of the following molecules is not a component of the 30 S initiation complex?

a) GTP                                                                                  

b) m RNA                                                                            

c) Initiation factor 2

d) ATP                                                  

Q.41- Out of the following, one class of RNA characteristically contains unusual purines and pyrimidines. This RNA is-

a) tRNA                                                                               

b) rRNA                                                                               

c) m RNA

d) 16s RNA                                         



Key to Answers-

1-d,        2-c,         3-b,        4-b,        5-b,        6-c,         7-a,        8-d,        9-b         10-a,      11-a,     


12-a,      13-d,      14-d,      15-c,      16-d,      17-c,      18-b,      19-c,      20-b,      21-b,      22-c,      23-d,


24-d,      25-b,      26-c,      27-b,      28-d,      29-a,      30-d,      31-c,      32-c,      33-b,      34-a,      35-c


36-a,      37-d,      38-d,      39-b,      40-d,      41-a.

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Q.1- A critical enzyme used directly in the synthesis of dTMP (thymidine) is

a) Carbamoyl phosphate

b) Aspartate Transcarbamoylase

c) Dihydrooratase

d) Thymidylate synthase

Q.2- In which phase of the cell cycle does DNA replication occur?

a) G0

b) G1

c) S

d) G2

Q.3-A 10 month old baby boy presents with steatorrhea, recurrent pulmonary infections, GI upset and foul-smelling stool. Which of the following tests is undertaken to confirm your diagnosis?

a) Sweat test

b) Blood glucose

c) CBC

d) RFLP analysis

Q.4-The enzyme responsible for initiating DNA replication in prokaryotes is:

a) DNA polymerase I

b) DNA polymerase III

c) Polymerase beta

d) Primase

Q.5- The enzyme responsible for continuing DNA replication in prokaryotes, once it is initiated is:

a) DNA polymerase I

b) DNA polymerase III

c) polymerase beta

d) polymerase delta

Q.6- Antibiotics such as Ciprofloxacin and Flouroquinolines work by inhibiting a specific enzyme. This enzyme is normally necessary to relieve torsional strain that is caused by the unwinding of the helix. What is the name of this enzyme?

a) DNA ligase

b) Topoisomerase (DNA Gyrase)

c) single-stranded binding protein

d) primase

Q.7- Which of the following techniques is primarily undertaken to amplify DNA?

a) PCR

b) Microarrays

c) Northern Blotting

d) Southern Blotting

Q.8- In Pyrimidine Synthesis, Eukaryotes can use uracil to feedback inhibit which of the following enzymes?

a) Carbamoyl phosphate synthase

b) Aspartate Transcarbamoylase

c) Dihydrooratase

d) Thymidylate synthase

Q.9- All of the following are required for PURINE DE NOVO synthesis EXCEPT:

a) CO2

b) Glycine

c) Glutamine

d) Isoleucine

Q.10- Which of the following, in high concentrations, can overcome PURINE DE NOVO inhibition?

a) Ribose-5-phosphate


c) 5-phosphoribosyl 1-amine

d) GDP

Q.11- A 40-year-old alcoholic comes in with severe pain in his big toe.  You decide to administer Allopurinol to inhibit which of the following enzymes:

a) Xanthine Oxidase

b) Thymidine kinase

c) Adenosine Deaminase

) Adenine phosphoribosyl transferase

Q.12- All of the following are used in PCR EXCEPT:

a) Taq polymerase

b) Restriction enzymes

c) Oligonucleotide primers

d) Deoxynucleoside triphosphates

Q.13- The following are features of DNA replication EXCEPT:

a) Semi-conservative

b) Semi-discontinuous

c) unidirectional

d) chain growth in the 5’ –> 3’ direction

Q.14- The oncogene Ras binds:

a) ATP

b) GTP

c) Glucose

d) Hemoglobin

Q.15- Which out of the following mechanisms is involved in the production of variety of immunoglobulins each specific for a specific antigen?

a) Class switching                                            

b) Gene amplification

c) Gene rearrangement                               

d) RNA editing

Q.16-Which out of the following is a common enzyme for de novo as well as salvage pathway of purine biosynthesis?

a) Amidotransferase                                     

b) PRPP synthetase

c) HGPRTase                                                     

d) Adenylosuccinate synthetase

Q.17-Which of the following does not have introns?

a) DNA

b) Non-processed pseudo genes

c) Processed m RNA

d) Primary RNA transcript

Q.18- Which of the following is NOT true of RNA synthesis?

a)  The key enzyme is RNA polymerase

b)  The energy is supplied by ring cleavage

c) The RNA sequence is complementary to the template strand of DNA

d) The RNA sequence is of opposite polarity to the template strand of DNA

Q.19-  If the molar amount of G in a DNA sample is 20%, what is the molar amount of T in the sample?

a) 20%

b) 30%

c) 40%

d) 60%

Q.20- With respect to the LAC operon, if both glucose and lactose are present and glucose is low, which of the following is NOT true?

a) High CAP

b) increased uptake of lactose

c) low cAMP

d) increased transcription of the lac operon

Q.21- Which of the following subunits of the bacterial RNA polymerase is responsible for promoter recognition?

a) alpha

b) B

c) B’

d) sigma

Q.22-Which is true of the melting temperature of G-C pairs compared to A-T pairs in DNA?

a) The Tm are equal

b) Tm of G-C is less than the Tm of A-T

c) Tm of G-C is greater than the Tm of A-T

d) None of the above

Q.23- A 10-year-old boy comes to the ER after eating wild mushrooms.  The poison associated with these mushrooms most likely DIRECTLY inhibits the synthesis of the following:

a) hn RNA

b) t RNA

c) DNA

d) m RNA

Q.24- DNA methylation is associated with:

a) CpG islands

b) CAT box

c) TATA box

d) increasing gene transcription

Q.25-Alternative splicing…

a) Creates protein from multiple segments of DNA on different chromosomes

b) Is the reason why the human genome is much more complex than other species

c) Creates different proteins from a single gene

d) is not tissue specific

Q.26-All of the following are involved in translating information into proteins EXCEPT:

a) rRNA

b) siRNA

c) tRNA

d) snRNA

Q.27-Which histone is NOT part of the nucleosome?

a) H1

b) H2A

c) H2B

d) H3

Q.28-Which out of the following is an inhibitor of prokaryotic transcription?

a) Ciprofloxacin                                

b) Etoposide

c) Erythromycin                                               

d) Rifampicin

Q.29- Choose the nucleoside analogue used as an anticancer drug out of the following

a) Methotrexate                                             

b) 6- Mercaptopurine

c) Vinblastin                                                      

d) Cytosine Arabinoside

Q.30- Which amino acid residue is in abundance in histones?

a) Arginine

b) Aspartic acid

c) Tryptophan

d) Phenyl alanine

Q.31– Which out of the following techniques is used for the detection of gene of interest –

a) Southern Blotting                                      

b) Polymerase chain reaction    

c) Northern Blotting                                       

d) DNA Foot printing     

Q.32–Which out of the following is an example of post translational modification?

a) Splicing                                                           

b) Class switching

c) Subunit aggregation  

d) Base modification

Q.33- Which of the following is a required substrate for purine biosynthesis?

a) 5- methyl thymidine                 

b) Ribose phosphate                                     

c) Ara C

d) PRPP (5- phosphoribosylpyrophosphate)

Q.34-Triple repeat sequence disease occurs in:

a)Alzheimer’s disease

b) Cystic fibrosis

c) Ataxia telangectasia

d) Huntington’s chorea                                                                                                

Q.35-Northern blotting is used for separation of:

a) DNA

b) mRNA

c) Protein

d) Protein DNA interactions


Key to Answers-

1-d,        2-c,         3-d,        4-d,        5-b,        6-b,        7-a,        8-a,        9-d,        10-b,      11-a,      12-b,      13-c,


14-b,      15-c,      16-b,      17-c,      18-b,      19-b,      20-c,      21-d,      22-c,      23-a,      24-a,      25-c,      26-b,


27-a,      28-d,      29-d,      30-a,      31-a,      32-c,      33-d,      34-d,      35-b






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